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OFA + CPR & AED (Theory Test)
This paper consists of 40 questions and the duration for this test is 40 minutes. A minimum of 32 correct answers is required to pass.
1. Casualty with partial thickness burns with blisters is classified as _______________.
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a) 3rd Degree burn
b) 2nd Degree burn
c) 1st Degree burn
d) None of the above
2. Autoinjectors are handheld devices carried by ____________.
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a) Patient with severe allergies
b) Patient with severe breathing difficulty
c) Casualty with severe bleeding
d) None of the above
3. Name the correct sequence of the 7 chain of survival used in accessing casualty?
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a) Prevention, Early Access, Early CPR, Early Defibrillation, Early Emergency Medical Service, Early Advance Cardiac Life Support & recovery
b) Early CPR, Prevention, Recovery, Early Access, Early Defibrillation, Early Emergency Medical Service & Early Advance Life Support
c) Early Access, Early Defibrillation, Early CPR, Prevention, Recovery, Early Emergency Medical Service & Early Advance Cardiac Life Suppor Prevention, Recovery,
d) Recovery, Early Defibrillation, Early CPR, Early Emergency Medical Service, Early Access, Early Advance Cardiac Life Support & prevention
4. The recommended duration an improvised tourniquet can be applied on a casualty with severe bleeding is _________?
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a) 1 hr
b) 2 hrs
c) 3 hrs
d) 4 hrs
5. Mrs Lim slipped and fell down the stairs, she cried of pain and swelling over her right foot. What treatment should be given to her?
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a) Rest, Ice, Compress, & Elevate (R.I.C.E)
b) Rub the affected area with ointment
c) Elevate up the injured leg to reduce blood flow
d) Bandage up the injured leg
6. Asthma is associated with_____________.
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a) Severe Chest Pain
b) Rub the affected area with ointment
c) Breathing Difficulties
d) High Fever
7. Which of the following statements are true about Shock?
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a) Life threatening condition
b) Inadequate perfusion to vital organs – Heart / Brain
c) Cannot be stabilized on scene
d) All the above
8. What is the first aid treatment for a casualty who was scalded by hot water ____________.
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a) Cool the burn area with running water for 10 minutes
b) Apply home remedies on the burn area
c) Apply burn cream
d) Burst the blister
9. A casualty with a simple fainting spell can be placed in the________________.
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a) Head down position
b) Recumbent (sitting) position
c) Semi-Recumbent position
d) Supine position with casualty legs slightly raise
10. During a school cross country, a student shows sign of weakness, pale skin, and profusely sweating. What should you do as a first aider onsite attending to the student?
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a) Place him in a shady place
b) Loosen constricting clothing
c) Encourage him to drink if he is not vomiting
d) All the above
11. What is the depth of compression on an adult when performing CPR?
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a) 2cm to 3cm
b) 3cm to 4cm
c) 4cm to 6cm
d) 5cm and above
12. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious adult is ___________.
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a) Coins
b) Casualty tongue dropping backwards
c) Severe bleeding
d) Cupcakes
13. When checking breathing in a casualty, it should not be more than ____________.
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a) 10 second
b) 20 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 40 seconds
14. What are some of the signs and symptoms of fracture_______________?
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a) Swelling and Bruising
b) Deformity
c) Crying in pain when moving the injured parts
d) All of the above
15. AED delivers shock on which underlying cardiac rhythm?
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a) Fast heartbeat [tachycardia]
b) Normal Sinus Rhythm
c) Asystole
d) Ventricular Fibrillation
16. For effective CPR, rescuer can______________.
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a) Estimate through thick clothing to locate correct landmark
b) Completely remove casualty’s clothing
c) Expose adequately and start chest compression
d) Remove the Bras in all female patients to have better contact
17. What is the method used to perform on a conscious casualty who is suffering from an airway obstruction? (Both Adult and Child)
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a) Chest Thrust
b) Abdominal Thrust
c) 5 Back Blows & 5 Chest Thrusts
d) 5 Back Slaps
18. To recognise normal breathing, you should look at the ____________to determine presence of breathing.
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a) Rise and Fall of chest
b) The movement on the mouth
c) Movement on the body
d) Movement on the leg
19. When attending to casualty, the first aider should first __________________.
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a) Call 999 Police
b) Call Ambulance
c) Check for the casualty’s response
d) Plan for Health policies
20. Give definition of First Aid.
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a) The initial assistance or treatment given to someone who is injured or suddenly taken ill
b) The treatment given to someone who is injured or suddenly taken ill
c) The initial assistance given to someone suddenly taken
d) The initial treatment given to someone injured
21. What are the Aims of First Aid?
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a) Preserve life
b) Protect the casualty from further harm
c) Provide reassurance
d) All the above
22. Bleeding that spurts blood, has a pulsating flow, and is bright red in colour is ______________.
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a) Venous Bleeding
b) Arterial Bleeding
c) Capillary Bleeding
d) Severe Bleeding
23. What treatment to give to a casualty who has a “black eye“ __________________.
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a) Put moist gauzes over the eye
b) Wash with lots of water
c) Apply ice pack
d) Roll the bruises with warm hardboiled egg
24. During an accident, the casualty suffered a side pelvic Fracture. He is able to seat up by himself and has swelling around his upper thigh area. What could be the cause?
*
a) severe blood loss
b) head injury
c) spinal injury
d) Casualty goes into unconscious state
25. For chemical splashes into the eye, you should __________________.
*
a) Use eye drops and wait for 30 minutes to indicated signs of improvement.
b) Flush with water on the affected eye for at least 20 minute
c) Apply bandage on the affected eye and wait for the arrival of ambulance
d) Seek medical attention immediate
26. Some signs of shock related to severe blood lost are:
*
a) Abdominal cramps and diarrhoea
b) Weakness, anxiety and confusion
c) Generalised itch and swelling of the face and lip
d) None of the above
27. A casualty with breathing difficulty, puffy eyes, swelling of the lip and itching over the body is likely suspected to be in
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a) Hypovolemic shock
b) Anaphylactic Shock
c) Neurogenic Shock
d) Septic shock
28. A casualty experiences fits and convulses violently at his desk. As a train first aider what should you do?
*
a) Stop the fits by holding down the student firmly
b) Place the student in the recovery position
c) Move dangerous objects away from the casualty
d) Place a spoon in his mouth to prevent him from biting his own tongue
29. Gasping is not recognized as normal breathing. You should look at the ____________ to determine presence of breathing.
*
a) Rise and Fall of chest
b) The movement on the mouth
c) Movement on the body
d) Movement on the leg
30. Severe bleeding not able to stop after direct pressure, what should you do as a first responder?
*
a) Improvised tourniquet
b) Continue direct pressure
c) Proceed to pressing bandaging
d) None of the above
31. Allowing full chest recoil while performing CPR is important as it allows ___________________?
*
a) Rescuer to keep the rate between 100 to 120 BPM
b) Oxygen to fill the lungs
c) For rescuer to not get tired too quickly
d) Blood to fill the chambers of the heart
32. For effective CPR casualty must be lying on _______________?
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a) Flat and firm surface with face facing up
b) On the bed
c) Sitting up right
d) casualty lying down with back facing the first aid responder
33. When preparing the chest before attaching AED pads, what are the safety elements you as a first aider need to look out for_________.
*
a) Water, Gas
b )Water, Metal, & Gas
c) Gas, Metal
d) All of the above.
34. EpiPen is an auto-injectable device that delivers the drug ______________ . It is used when someone is experiencing a severe allergic reaction.
*
a) Valium
b) Penicillin
c) Panadol
d) epinephrine
35. When did the workplace safety and health act (WSH) came into force / enacted?
*
a) 1997
b) 2000
c) 2006
d) 2009
36. Under the WSH Act 2006, what is the employee’s main responsibilities?
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a) To go to work on time
b) To live through the day
c) To observe safety rules and regulation
d) To work diligently
37. Who is NOT affected by the WSH Act 2006?
*
a) Occupier
b) Erector / Installer
c) The bosses
d) Fireman
38. Which statement is correct under the WSH Act (First Aid) regulations 2006?
*
a) First Aid box should be well maintained and be identified clearly
b) Check and replenish only when used
c) First Aid box must be locked after office hour
d) No need to place someone in charge of the first aid box
39. Which of the following is NOT classified as a hazardous chemical?
*
a) Nitric Acid (Concentrated)
b) Hydrochloric (Concentrated)
c) Hydrofluoric (Concentrated)
d) Saline wash
40. For the most updated SDS documents, you should obtain it from:-
*
a) The in charge in your company
b) The end user
d) The supplier or manufacturer of the chemical
e) The previous user who handed over the chemical
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